Thank you Hans.
Ah, I’m starting to see what you mean here. While the time differential between the two names (Joshua and Jesus) and (Jacob and James) would be about the same (actually the Jacob/James one is bigger, which would allow for more change to take place in pronunciation), when I look at the pronunciation for G2385 it’s not intuitively obvious how they got from Iakōbos to James, the same way they got from Iakōb to Jacob. In any event, Iakōbos isn’t that big a pronunciation difference from Iakōb...maybe Jacobus would have been a better transliteration of G2385. Maybe. headscratch
I’d technically have to get deeper into Greek pronunciation to be absolutely sure, but you may have a case...
This argument really doesn’t make much sense to me. Greek is Greek: if I had an entire Greek Bible (Old and New Testaments), “James” would read as Ἰάκωβος and “Jacob” would read as Ἰακώβ. This would be true before King James was even alive.
(By the way, Greek Old Testament exists: it’s called the Septuagint for those wondering.) While I can kinda go with the idea that James isn’t the best transliteration of Ἰάκωβος, I maintain that it’s not the same as Jacob.